I ask because as far as I know, I have never had a UTI. However, I also do not cath. I never have, I have always used either a valsalva or crede (which I adopted as I got older) method for voiding. I do have sensation and I can feel when I need to go. I also have control so I never wet myself or wet my bed.
I've never really had any sort of issue with peeing basically. What I have had issues with are urologists. I have actually had to leave out of a urologists' office mid-app't due to this doc's attitude towards me and my method of voiding. While he found only about 130 ccs of residual urine in my bladder after I voided and had my bladder scanned, AND the fact that I had never had any problems in the (at that time) ten years I had been in a chair; this dr. insisted that I was doing the wrong thing by not using a catheter.
He waved off my concerns, saying that sooner or later I would start having problems.
Well that just seemed so messed up to me. I have read so many shitty stories about the problems created by the necessity of catheters. As well as the sexual problems catheters create. Why would I voluntarily go down that path when I have been so effin lucky to be totally problem free for the entire time I have been paralysed? On top of the fact that I would be able to feel it?
I didn't expect to blab like this when I started with this question. I was hesitant to bring this up because I know that so many of you guys deal with so much when it comes to this crap; I didn't want anyone to be offput in anyway. I don't want anyone to misunderstand me.
Anyway, all this talk of UTIs has put the thought in my head; could I ever be dealing with a UTI and not know it? Or mistake it for something else? I also get my urine/blood tested on a routine basis every 6 months and no infections/bacteria have ever shown up there.
One thing that has always confused me, on the topic of residual urine, is the matter of sterility. Now if there is some urine left in the bladder after one voids, regardless of the method used, it is urine that has never left the bladder. Urine is sterile until it leaves the body. So that [i]sterile, residual urine gets combined with the urine that gets voided out in the next void, and so on and so on. At no point does any non-sterile urine re-enter the body; the urethura or the bladder. So how is it considered a risk for infection?
I have no idea why that big chunk of my post is in italics. I didn't do that and I can even seem to fix it. Weird.
Edited by A trophy guy, 06 November 2011 - 07:40 AM.





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